From: David_Ripa@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx
Date: Fri Aug 02 2002 - 17:42:35 GMT-3
I mean INTER-area routing.
----- Forwarded by David Ripa/WW/Interliant on 08/02/2002 04:38 PM -----
David Ripa
To: Asim Khan <asimmegawatt
@yahoo.com>
08/02/2002 04:41 cc: ccielab@groupstudy.com,
nobody@groupstudy.com
PM Subject: Re: Area 0(Document lin
k: David Ripa)
Asim
I guess the keyword here is "valid". You can have an OSPF configuration
that has only one area in it, like say, area 2. Everything will route fine
within the area but you will never be able to route to any other area
unless you traverse area 0 first.
Area 0 is needed for intra-area routing.
David
Asim Khan
<asimmegawatt@ya To: ccielab@groupstudy.com
hoo.com> cc:
Sent by: Subject: Area 0
nobody@groupstud
y.com
08/02/2002 03:37
PM
Please respond
to Asim Khan
Hi All,
I have a quick question, while reading Bruce Caslow I
came across the following statement (page 387)
"Every valid OSPF configuration must have an area 0,
so if you use only single OSPF area for your entire
network, it must be area 0".
Whereas in Jeff Doyle volume 1 on page 517, it is
written that "Single area does not have to be area 0".
So which one is correct?
Regards.
Asim Khan
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