From: Peter van Oene (pvo@xxxxxxxxxxxx)
Date: Fri Aug 02 2002 - 23:10:33 GMT-3
At 05:30 PM 8/2/2002 -0400, Paglia, John (USPC.PCT.Hopewell) wrote:
>Fine and well, but just to clarify, it's just as david said...it all depends
>on the word "valid". You will never fins a "valid" ospf configuration that
>does not employ area 0.
>
>I guess I'll change my answer to say both are correct, but with a footnote
>stating that the chances of finding a valid ospf design without an area 0,
>even in a single area situation, are extremely slim.
I fully disagree and suggest that single area OSPF networks should NOT use
area 0.0.0.0 as their area ID. Using a non special identifier provides the
most flexibility in the future. Futher, there is nothing invalid about an
OSPF network that doesn't have an area 0 so long as it employs only one area.
>Pags
>
>
> > -----Original Message-----
> > From: Leigh Anne Chisholm [SMTP:lac@applieddesign.net]
> > Sent: Friday, August 02, 2002 5:10 PM
> > To: Paglia, John (USPC.PCT.Hopewell); 'Asim Khan';
> > ccielab@groupstudy.com
> > Subject: RE: Area 0
> >
> > If you have more than one area, you must have an area 0 as a backbone
> > area.
> > If you have a network with only one area, it can be any valid area
> > integer.
> >
> > I thought it funky when I first read Doyle's statement, so I tried it out
> > and
> > OSPF works just fine in a single-area non-area-zero network.
> >
> > What you need to consider, is whether you'll ever (through mergers,
> > acquisitions, corporate growth, network design requirements, etc.) have
> > need
> > for a second area. If you may, area 0 is a smart choice for your
> > single-area
> > network.
> >
> >
> > -- Leigh Anne
> >
> > > -----Original Message-----
> > > From: nobody@groupstudy.com [mailto:nobody@groupstudy.com]On Behalf Of
> > > Paglia, John (USPC.PCT.Hopewell)
> > > Sent: Friday, August 02, 2002 2:28 PM
> > > To: 'Asim Khan'; ccielab@groupstudy.com
> > > Subject: RE: Area 0
> > >
> > >
> > > You absolutely have to have an area 0.
> > >
> > > Pags
> > >
> > > > -----Original Message-----
> > > > From: Asim Khan [SMTP:asimmegawatt@yahoo.com]
> > > > Sent: Friday, August 02, 2002 3:38 PM
> > > > To: ccielab@groupstudy.com
> > > > Subject: Area 0
> > > >
> > > > Hi All,
> > > >
> > > > I have a quick question, while reading Bruce Caslow I
> > > > came across the following statement (page 387)
> > > > "Every valid OSPF configuration must have an area 0,
> > > > so if you use only single OSPF area for your entire
> > > > network, it must be area 0".
> > > >
> > > > Whereas in Jeff Doyle volume 1 on page 517, it is
> > > > written that "Single area does not have to be area 0".
> > > >
> > > > So which one is correct?
> > > >
> > > > Regards.
> > > >
> > > > Asim Khan
> > > >
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