From: CCIE FUN (ccieexam2002@yahoo.com)
Date: Mon Sep 16 2002 - 11:37:10 GMT-3
area 0 range command should solve your problem, that
command will be entered on the R3 router.
--- Enrique Hernandez <enrique.hernandez@telindus.es>
wrote:
> > Hi Group!
> >
> > Could anybody help me with a redistribution
> problem?
> >
> > I got this scheme:
> >
> > [Router1]------(RIP)-------[Router2]------(OSPF
> > A1)--------[Router3]--------(OSPF
> A0)---------[Router4]
> >
> > I'm speaking RIP v1 between Router1 and Router2
> and the mask of the
> > interfaces is 24 bits.
> > Between Router3 and Router4 there's OSPF area 0
> and the mask of the
> > interfaces is 29 bits.
> >
> > What can I do to redistribute the area 0 network
> into RIP throught the
> > area 1?
> > I need that Router2 has the area 0 network but
> with 24 bit mask to
> > redistribute it (same as the rip interface) and
> "area 0 range" from area 0
> > to other area doesn't work to summarize, doesn't
> it?
> >
> > Well, I'd be very gratefull if anybody could give
> me any clue.
> > Thanks a lot.
> >
> > Regards,
> >
> >
> > Enrique Hernandez
> >
> > Network Engineer
> > Technical Department
> >
>
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