From: Peng Zheng (zpnist@yahoo.com)
Date: Mon Aug 18 2003 - 12:37:15 GMT-3
Yes. I think so. But there is a route loop for routes
from AS 20.
R5 goes to R3 and R3 goes to R5.
--- pauldongso <pauldongso@hotmail.com> wrote:
> Hi Peng
>
> As the question is not that clear, I can only make a
> guess.
>
> Since r4 is not part of the bgp, any bgp prefix
> needs to be
> redistributed to ospf to make r4 aware of their
> existence before full
> reachability is achieved.
>
>
> Paul
>
> =================================================
>
> Topology as:
>
> R3
> |
> R4
> |
> R5-----R2---R1
> | |
> R6 (AS 20)
>
> OSPF run among them.
>
> Now R1, R2, R3 in AS 1, R2 as Route Reflector.
> Without
> BGP on R4. R5 in AS 2.
>
> Reqiurement:
>
> R3 and R6 propagate their lo 1 into BGP,
> They are 199.100.1.0 and 199.101.1.0
>
>
> 1. routes from AS 20 needed to be reachable from all
> BGP routers.
>
> 2. routes for lo 1 of R3 and R6 should be reachable
> from any routers runing BGP.
>
> 3. propagate only one route into AS 2 for lo 1 of R3
> and R6.
>
> 4. routes from AS 20 should be appeared as BGP
> routes
> on all BGP routers.
>
> How to satisfy all these at the same time?
>
>
>
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