From: john matus (jmatus@pacbell.net)
Date: Mon Mar 22 2004 - 21:29:42 GMT-3
if i've advertised my loopback 0 in one routing protocol, is it "illegal" to
advertise is in another?...i've never heard it stated thus, but it seems like
that is the case.
if you are running multiple protocols, such as OSPF, EIGRP, RIP, and BGP, is
it best to create a loopback for each protocol? or just use the connected
networks?
i guess there is an "exam" answer to this and a "real world" answer as well.
Regards,
John D. Matus
MCSE, CCNP
818.782.2061 office
818.430.8372 mobile
jmatus@pacbell.net
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