So there are a couple of ways to answer all this.
Packets are exchanged via the channel protocol. In Cisco land, it could 
be LACP 802.3ad (which has been superceded by* **IEEE 802.1AX-2008 *but 
no one ever remembers that) or PAGP. LACP is the IEEE spec and PAGP is 
Cisco proprietary. Depending on how you configure your channel-group, 
one of those protocols will do the negotiation across the physical ports 
on both side to logically bond them.
The bundled link at that point is a single logical link. If you look in 
show spanning-tree det you would see Po1 (example) referenced as a port. 
The two physical ports would not be referenced in STP.
As far as whether it's in a forwarding state or not, that would depend 
on the rest of your config. If you had a single port channel between two 
switches then yes, it would forward. If you had multiple redundant port 
channels between the switches and you were configuring the port channels 
as ACCESS channels (no DTP) and they were on the same VLAN, then yes, 
you would have one blocking.
--Hammer--
On 9/27/2010 9:29 AM, CCIE KID wrote:
> Hey can u explain me the process and what r the packets exchanged so 
> that how does STP come to know that that the particular port is bundled
>
> What will be in the sh spanning-tree detail for that particular port 
> which is been blocking
> Whether it will be of  forwarding state
>
> That bundled link will be in which state in forwarding state in STP ah??
> pls brief me about that??
>
> On Mon, Sep 27, 2010 at 7:51 PM, --Hammer-- <bhmccie_at_gmail.com 
> <mailto:bhmccie_at_gmail.com>> wrote:
>
>      CCIE KID,
>        When you "bond" the two physical interfaces into a logical port
>     channel, you will pass traffic over both Fa0/1 and Fa0/2. STP
>     treats the entire collection of physical interfaces as a single
>     logical port. This is all negotiated between the endpoints. Does
>     that help?
>
>     --Hammer--
>
>
>
>     On 9/27/2010 9:17 AM, CCIE KID wrote:
>
>         I have a doubt in ether Channel
>
>         This is my scenario
>
>         SW1 fa0/1-------------------------------------------fa 0/1 SW2
>                 fa0/2-------------------------------------------fa 0/2
>
>         In STP SW1 is the root bridge and SW2 is the non root bridge ,
>         In SW2 fa 0/1
>         is in forwarding state and fa 0/2 is in blocking state .
>         So in Ether channel, if we bundle fa0/1 and fa 0/2 ,traffic
>         cannot be passed
>         through fa 0/2  .
>         How Ether Channel informs STP about the bundling and makes the
>         fa 0/2 into
>         forwarding
>         Can anyone explain me the process
>         I am expecting the experts to explain
>
>
>
>         With Warmest Regards,
>
>         CCIE KID
>         IN PURSUIT OF CCIE
>
>
>         Blogs and organic groups at http://www.ccie.net
>
>         _______________________________________________________________________
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>
>
>
>     Blogs and organic groups at http://www.ccie.net
>
>     _______________________________________________________________________
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>     http://www.groupstudy.com/list/CCIELab.html
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
> -- 
> With Warmest Regards,
>
> CCIE KID
> IN PURSUIT OF CCIE
Blogs and organic groups at http://www.ccie.net
Received on Mon Sep 27 2010 - 09:46:49 ART
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